US population versus Britain... percentage of population made up of immigrants... percentage of different religions... welfare rates... percentage of unemployment... percentage of incarcerations... all vastly different.
In short, even though we share a common language, our 2 societies are radically different and thus make a poor comparison when discussing gun laws.
However, when mentioning an increase in Britain's violent crime there is no mention of what kind of violence. Is it beatings? Is it knifings? Is it shootings? Just stating that their crime rate is up doesn't explain why or how it relates to guns.
Anyone see that tonight? It sure did look to me like they were pushing the total gun ban idea. What was really interesting was how they admitted, very briefly, in one quick sentence that gun violence was UP in Britain since banning all handgun ownership (and they didn't mention that violent crime in Britain in general was WAY up since then). They didn't elaborate or explore that.
What they did repeat a couple of times was that there haven't been any mass shootings since then (1996). They also did some finger-wagging at the US about how WE should have the same ban. But I have to ask, as hideous as 16 people being shot to death all in one go, isn't it also hideous if twice as many get killed in separate incidents? And WHY has gun violence in Britain gone up since passing the law?
If they are going to tell this story, shouldn't they explore these aspects? Are they not relevant?
Just wondering.

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