... then the additional $236.00 is nothing more than profit in the pharmacist's income. Why would a pharmaceutical company require a retailer to make so much profit?
about a prescription anti-fungal cream in the US. The pharmacist told the source that his wholesale cost for the cream was $4.00 a tube, but was required by the company producing it to charge $240.00 for the amount dispensed. Does this sound like fiction to you (it does to me) or does it sound possible or probable.
Note this is a request for information not a post to create irritation or conflict (sorry, but the last time I tried to just ask a simple question here it was turned into a bun fight and then the thread was locked).